Is Jesus teaching that he was omnipresent, even when on earth here?
Matthew 28:20 “… and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age.”
But this was after his resurrection! He also said here “All power has been given to me,” does this not imply that he did not have all power before this gift was given, does this not imply that he had put aside omnipotence?
Here is another verse that may teach omnipresence when Jesus was on earth, though:
Matthew 18:20 “For where two or three come together in my name, there am I with them.”
This seems more directed towards after Jesus’ departure as well, though, for by all indications there were no gatherings of believers in Jesus’ name while he was here on earth during his ministry. And the previous verse also would indicate the future, after the resurrection:
Matthew 18:18 “I tell you the truth, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven.”
And thus this other verse, in the same discourse, would quite likely belong to this future timeframe as well.
But here is a verse that may indicate omniscience while Jesus was on earth:
John 16:30-31 “Now we can see that you know all things and that you do not even need to have anyone ask you questions. This makes us believe that you came from God.” 31 “You believe at last!” Jesus answered.
This is similar to Peter’s statement in John 21:17, yet Peter’s statement is after the resurrection, which Jesus confirms, and though the earlier statement in John 16:30 might be confirmed too, I think the most natural reading in John 16:30 is “You believe I came from God at last,” not “You believe I know all things at last.”
And it seems “neither the Son” (Mt. 24:36) indeed means the Son really did not know the time of his return then, just as the angels do not know, instead of just a part of the angels lacking this knowledge, and thus Jesus also did not know, in a similar way. Postulating two natures in Jesus during his incarnation, one of which did know, and the other of which did not, does not seem to be supported here.
But Jesus was united with the Father and the Spirit, and God was still omniscient and omnipresent, and Jesus had access to all knowledge and power through the Father, but not directly:
Matthew 26:53 Do you think I cannot call on my Father, and he will at once put at my disposal more than twelve legions of angels?
John 11:22 But I know that even now God will give you whatever you ask.
So I believe Jesus put some of these aspects aside, instead of veiling knowledge between two of his natures, or being present everywhere in one nature but not(?) in another.
Other verses could be mentioned, “He who watches over Israel neither slumbers nor sleeps” (Ps. 121:4), yet Jesus “was asleep” (Mt. 8:24). “The Lord does not faint or grow weary” (Isa. 48:28), yet “Jesus, wearied as he was from his journey,” sat down by the well (Jn. 4:6).
So it seems Jesus did put aside omniscience, omnipotence, and omnipresence, though the Father and the Spirit had all these attributes still, Jesus became the perfect man, then he could be our perfect example.